Q1. Consider the following statements regarding Harappan civilization:
1. All of the cities were divided into two or more parts.
2. In the divided cities usually, the part to the west was larger but at a lower elevation and called
as the lower town.
3. In the divided cities usually, the part to the east was smaller but at a higher elevation and
called as the citadel.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are incorrect?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. None of the above
Answer: C
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: Many but not all of the Indus valley cities were divided into two or
more parts.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Usually, the part to the west was smaller but at a higher elevation and
described as the citadel.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Generally, the part to the east was larger but at a lower elevation. This
was the lower town.
Q2. Consider the following diseases:
1. Malaria
2. Hepatitis B
3. Dysentery
Which of the above disease(s) is/are caused by protozoans?
A. 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Exp: Malaria is a mosquito-borne infectious disease affecting humans and other animals
caused by parasitic protozoans (a group of single celled microorganisms) belonging to the
Plasmodium type. Malaria is a life-threatening disease caused by parasites and transmitted to
people through the bites of infected female Anopheles mosquitoes.
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that attacks the liver and can cause both acute and chronic
disease. The virus gets transmitted through contact with the blood or other body fluids of an
infected person. An estimated 257 million people are living with Hepatitis B virus infection
(defined as Hepatitis B surface antigen positive).
Dysentery is bloody diarrhoea, i.e. any diarrhoeal episode in which the loose or watery stools
contain visible red blood. Dysentery is most often caused by Shigella species (bacillary
dysentery) or Entamoeba histolytica (amoebic dysentery). It is caused by several types of
infections such as bacteria, viruses, parasitic worms, or protozoa.
Q3. The terms Cirque, Aretes and Bergschrund are related to which geographical phenomena?
A. Coastal landforms
B. Wind erosion landforms
C. Landforms of glaciation
D. Running water landforms
Answer: C
Exp: A cirque is an amphitheatre-like valley formed by glacial erosion. An Aretes is a narrow
ridge of rock which separates two valleys. It is typically formed when two glaciers erode parallel
U-shaped valleys. Bergschrund are crevasse at the junction of a glacier or snowfield with a
steep upper slope. These are landforms of glaciation.
Q4. Which of the following is the most appropriate description of Species?
A. The assemblage of the population of plants, animals, bacteria and fungi that live in an area
and interact with each other.
B. A community of animals and plants inhabiting a particular area.
C. Similar organisms having the potential for interbreeding and producing fertile offspring.
D. Group of organisms co-dependent on each other for survival.
Answer: C
Exp: Assemblage of population of plants, animals, bacteria and fungi that live in an area and
interact with each other is called “Biological Community”.
I. A community of animals and plants inhabiting a particular are are known as “Population.”
II. Similar organisms having the potential for interbreeding and producing fertile offspring are
called “Species.”
III. Statement d is a generic statement.
Q5. The Indian Constitution provides certain fundamental rights only to citizens whereas certain
fundamental rights are provided to citizens as well as foreigners. In this regard, which of the
following fundamental rights are available to both citizens and foreigners?
1. Article 20
2. Article 21A
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3. Article 19
4. Article 22
5. Article 25
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 4 and 5 only
B. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
C. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: C
Exp: Article 20 provides protection in respect of conviction for offences. Both citizens and
foreigners enjoy this fundamental right.
Article 21A declares that the State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children
between the age of 6 to 14 years in such a manner as the State may determine. It is also
available to both citizens and foreigners.
Article 19 guarantees to all citizens the right to freedom of speech and expression; right to
assemble peaceably and without arms; right to form associations or unions or co-operative
societies; right to move freely throughout the territory of India; right to reside and settle in any
part of the territory of India; and right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation,
trade or business. It is available only to citizens.
Article 22 provides protection against arrest and detention in certain cases. It is available to both
foreigners and citizens.
Article 25 guarantees freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of
religion. It is available to both citizens and foreigners (Foreigners do not include enemy aliens).
Q6. When a constitutional amendment aims to modify an article related to the distribution of
powers between the States and the Union government, then which of the following type of
majority is required to amend the Constitution?
A. Simple majority in the Parliament with ratification by not less than half of the States.
B. Special majority in the Parliament with ratification by not less than half of the States.
C. Simple majority in the Parliament.
D. Special majority in the Parliament.
Answer: B
Exp: There are three different ways of amending the Indian Constitution.
There are many articles in the Constitution which mention that these articles can be amended
by a simple law of the Parliament. No special procedure for amendment (under Article 368) is
required in such cases and there is no difference at all between an amendment and an ordinary
law.
For amending the remaining parts of the Constitution, provision has been made in Article 368 of
the Constitution.
One method is that amendment can be made by special majority of the two Houses of the
Parliament. Amendment to the Constitution requires two different kinds of special majorities: in
the first place, those voting in favour of the Amendment Bill should constitute at least half of the
total strength of that House. Secondly, the supporters of the Amendment Bill must also
constitute two-thirds of those who actually take part in voting.
The other method requires special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the State
legislatures. Apart from the provisions related to federal structure, provisions about fundamental
rights are also protected in this way.
Q7. Which of the following situations give rise to inflation?
1. When general level of prices of goods and services rises.
2. When general level of prices of goods and services falls.
3. When purchasing power of the currency decreases.
4. When purchasing power of the currency increases.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 1 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: A
Exp: Inflation is the rate at which the general level of prices for goods and services is rising and,
consequently, the purchasing power of the currency is falling.
Q8. Consider the following statements about a cave at Badami:
1. The cave is popularly known as Indra cave.
2. Paintings in the cave represent an extension of tradition from Ajanta caves.
3. Paintings in this cave depict palace scenes.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Exp: Statement 1 is incorrect: The inscription in Cave No. 4 of Badami caves describes the
beauty of the cave and includes the dedication of the image of Vishnu. Thus it may be
presumed that the cave was excavated in the same era and the patron records his Vaishnava
affiliation. Therefore, the cave is popularly known as the Vishnu cave and not Indra cave.
Statement 2 is correct: Stylistically, the painting represents an extension of the tradition of mural
painting from Ajanta to Badami in South India. The sinuously drawn lines, fluid forms and
compact composition exemplify the proficiency and maturity the artists had achieved in the sixth
century CE. The gracefully drawn faces of the king and the queen remind us of the style of
modelling in Ajanta.
Statement 3 is correct: Paintings in this cave depict palace scenes. For example- One shows
Kirtivarman, the son of Pulakesin I and the elder brother of Mangalesha, seated inside the
palace with his wife and feudatories watching a dance scene.
Q9. Consider the following statements regarding biodiversity hotspot:
1. A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region that is both threatened with destruction and is
a significant reservoir of biodiversity.
2. The German biologist Ernst Haeckel coined the term "biodiversity hotspot”.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Exp: A biodiversity hotspot is a biogeographic region that is both a significant reservoir of
biodiversity and is threatened with destruction.
The term biodiversity hotspot specifically refers to 25 biologically rich areas around the world
that have lost at least 70 percent of their original habitat.
The remaining natural habitat in these biodiversity hotspots amounts to just 1.4 percent of the
land surface of the planet, yet supports nearly 60 percent of the world's plant, bird, mammal,
reptile, and amphibian species.
The British biologist Norman Myers coined the term "biodiversity hotspot" in 1988 as a
biogeographic region characterized both by exceptional levels of plant endemism and by
serious levels of habitat loss.
The word “Ecology” was given by a German biologist, Ernst Haeckel in 1869. Sir Arthur Tansley
coined the term “Ecosystem” in 1935.
Q10. With reference to Mitochondria, consider the following statements:
1. They have their own DNA and ribosomes.
2. They are storage sacs of solid and liquid content.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Exp:
Mitochondria are known as the powerhouses of the cell. The energy required for various
chemical activities needed for life is released by mitochondria in the form of ATP (Adenosine
triphopshate) molecules. ATP is known as the energy currency of the cell. The body uses
energy stored in ATP for making new chemical compounds and for mechanical work.
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Mitochondria are strange organelles in the sense that they have their own DNA and
ribosomes. Therefore, mitochondria are able to make some of their own proteins.
Vacuoles are storage sacs for solid or liquid contents. Vacuoles are small sized in animal
cells while plant cells have very large vacuoles.
1.IAS Preparation Notes
2.International Relationship
Important Biology Questions
1. Silviculture is the branch of botany
in which we study about-
(a) Culture of algae
(b) Development of ofrest
(c) Culture of fungi
(d) Siliciphida plant
2. Study of pollen grain is called-
(a) Pomology (b) Polynology
(c) Phocology (d) Mycology
3. Study of internal structure of plant-
(a) Morphology (b) Anatomy
(c) Cology (d) Taxonomy
4. Estimation of age of woody plant by
counting annual ring is-
(a) Dendrology
(b) Denrochronolgy
(c) Agronomy
(d) Demography
5. Study of growing plant without soil
in water containing nutrient is-
(a) Hydrotonics
(b) Hydrophonics
(c) Hypotonics
(d) None
6. In Exo-biology we study about-
(a) External structure of living
beings
(b) Life present on the earth
(c) Life present in the other layer of
earth atmosphere
(d) Life found in space and on other
setallite.
7. Xenobiotics which are inherently
resistant to microbial attack are
called as-
(a) Biodegradable
(b) All of the given optins
(c) Recalcitrant
(d) Persistent
8. Curd is sour due to presence of
(a) Citric Acid (b) Lactic Acid
(c) Acetic Acid
(d) None of these
9. EBOL is a –
(a) Virus (b) Bacteria
(c) Protozoa (d) Fungi
10. Virus that infect bacteria are called
(a) Bacteriophages (b) Basophils
(c) Basal body
(d) Basidiospores
11. Desease caused by HIV-
(a) Tuberculosis
(b) Cancer
(c) Acquired immune deficiency
syndrome
(d) None of these
12. The biggest single- celled organism
is
(a) Yeast
(b) Acetabularia
(c) Acetobacter
(d) Amoeba
13. Agar – Agar is obtained from –
(a) Fungi (b) Algae
(c) Moss (d) Bacteria
14. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by
(a) Colletotrichum falcatum
(b) Cercospora percoruata
(c) Alternaria alternate
(d) Phylophthora infestans
15. Aflatoxins are produced by –
(a) Fungi (b) Bacteria
(c) Algae (d) Viruses
16. Statements:
1. In Gymnosperms, seeds are
enclosing in side fruits.
2. Dicots and monocots are included
in Angiospersm.
(a) Both Statements 1 and 2 are
correct.
(b) Both Statements 1 and 2 are
incorrect.
(c) Statement 1 is correct, but
Statement 2 is incorrect.
(d) Statement 1 is incorrect, but
Statement 2 is correct.
17. Which part of the cinchona yields a
drug?
(a) Endosperm (b) Pericarp
(c) Bark (d) leaf
18. Fiber of cotton is obtain from–
(a) Stem (b) Seed
(c) Fruit (d) Root
19. An enzyme produced by HIV that
allows the integration of HIV DNA
into the host cell’s DNA is -
(a) Integrase (b) Ligase
(c) Helicase
(d) DNA gyrase
20. Dr. Norman E. Borlaug belonged to-
(a) Spain (b) Mexico
(c) America (d) Austria
21. Eye of potato are -
(a) Apical buds
(b) Axillary buds
(c) Adventitous root
(d) Extra axillary bud
22. Ginger is-
(a) Modified root
(b) Modified stem
(c) Modified leaf
(d) Modified bulb
23. Cactus is referred to as-
(a) Hydrophte (b) Mesophte
(c) Xerophyte (d) Epiphte
24. Agar – agar is prepared from
(a) Alage (b) Lichens
(c) Fungi (d) Bryophyte
25. The inflorescence of wheat is-
(a) Raceme (b) Catkin
(c) Spike (d) Panicle
26. Consider the following statements:
(1) Maize can be used for the
production of starch
(2) Oil extracted from miaze can be
a feedstock fro biodiesel
(3) Alcoholic beverages can be
produced by using maise.
Which of the statements given above
is/ are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
27. Double fertilization is main feature
of-
(a) Bryophtes
(b) Pteridophytes
(c) Gymnosperm
(d) Angiosperm
28. Parthenogenesis is a process in
which-
(a) Fruit develop without harmone
(b) Fruit develop without
fertilization
(c) Development of egg without
fertilization
(d) Development of embryo without
fertilization
29. A fertilized egg is known as-
(a) Oospore
(b) Conidiospre
(c) Zoospore
(d) Zygote
30. Lungs of a plant are-
(a) Leaves (b) Stems
(c) Flowers (d) Roots
31. The plant from which cocoa and
chocolate are obtained is–
(a) Herb (b) shrub
(c) Small tree
(d) very big tree
32. Crop shown at the commencement
of the monsoon is called-
(a) Rabi crop
(b) Cash crop
(c) Kharif crop
(d) none of these
33. Plant which grow in saline soil are-
(a) Xerophytes
(b) Hydrophytes
(c) Halophytes
(d) Succulents
34. Transpiration in plants is a process
of
(a) Photorespiration
(b) Water loss
(c) Food production
(d) Respiration
35. In soil, water that is readily available
to plant roots is:
(a) Gravitational water
(b) Capillary water
(c) Hygroscopic water
(d) Bound water
36. Vaseline was applied to both
surfaces of the leaves of aplant.
Which of the following
process/processes would be
affected?
1. Photosynthesis
2. Rspiration
3. Transpiration Select the correct
answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
37. Willting of plants occurs due to
excessive:
(a) Absorption
(b) Transpiration
(c) Respiration
(d) Guttation
38. The loss of water in the form of
water drops is called-
(a) Transpiration (b) Respiration
(c) Guttation (d) Exosmosis
39. Transpiration differs from
evoporation in-
(a) Rate of water loss
(b) Transpiration is a physiological
process while evaporation is
physical process.
(c) Transpiration is physical process
while evaporation is a physiological
process.
(d) Frequency of water loss.
40. Dwarf plants can be made taller by
applying-
(a) Gibberellins (b) Auxins
(c) Cytokinins (d) Dormin
41. The oxygen in photsythesis is
released from-
(a) CO2
(b) H2O (c) Both CO2
& H2O
(d) Chlorophyll
42. Photolysis of water involves-
(a) Excitement of water
(b) Evoluation of oxygen
(c) Breakdown of water by light
(d) Splitting of water into its ion H+
and OH-
43. An element present in chlorophyll –
(a) Ca (b) Fe
(c) Mg (d) S
44. Respiration is-
(a) Endothermic process
(b) Exothermic process
(c) Anabolic process
(d) Endagenic process
45. Fermentation is –
(a) Anearobic respiration
(b) Incomplete oxidation of
carbohydrate
(c) Complete oxidation carbohydrate
(d) None of above
46. Incomplete break down of sugar in
anaerobic respiration form –
(a) Fructose and water
(b) Glucose and CO2
(c) Alcohol and CO2
(d) Water and CO2
47. Respiration is –
(a) Catabolic process that uses
carbon dioxide, produce oxygen and
converted released energy to ATP
(b) Anabolic process that uses
oxygen and carbon dioxide to form
ATP
(c) Anabolic process that uses
oxygen, piduces carbon dioxide and
converts released energy into ATP
(d) Catabolic process that uses
oxygen produces carbon dioxide and
converts released energy into ATP
48. Harmone helping in cell division-
(a) IAA
(b) NAA
(c) Cytokinn / Seatin
(d) Cibberellin
49. The instrument by which rate of
growth of plant is measured-
(a) Hydrometer
(b) Auxanometer
(c) Osmometer
(d) Potometer
50. For the growth in length of plant
which of the following is not
essential-
(a) Sodium (b) Calcium
(c) Nitrogen (d) Phosphorus
51. Example of positive geotropism is-
(a) Closing of flower
(b) Upward growth of stem
(c) Downwards growth of root
(d) Lateral growth of root
52. Leaves of which of the following
plants are not used for the rearing of
silkworms?
(a) Mulberry (b) Castor
(c) Oak (d) Teak
53. Water and mineral in plant is
transported through-
(a) Xylem (b) Phloem
(c) Pith (d) Cortex
54. Number of stomata is less and
sunkin in-
(a) Mesophytes (b) Halophytes
(c) Hydrophytes (d) Xerophytes
55. Which of the following is used as
rodenticide?
(a) Zinc phosphide
(b) Zinc carbonate
(c) Zinc chloride
(d) Zinc sulphide
56. Red not of sugarcane is caused by-
(a) Calletotrichum falcatum
(b) Cercopspora personata
(c) Alternaria alternata
(d) Phylophthora Infestans
57. Element playing role in nitrogen
fixation-
(a) Mn (b) Mo
(c) Zn (d) Cu
58. Branch of science which deal with
the study of skin of man-
(a) Physiology (b) Anatomy
(c) Biochemistry
(d) Demetology
59. Study of disease like cancer-
(a) Osteology (b) Oncology
(c) Karyology
(d) Nephrology
60. What is vermicultrue?
(a) The science of raising worms
(b) The science of studying
(c) The science of killing worms
(d) None of these
Chemistry
1. The most abundant elements is:
(a) Silicon (b) Calcium
(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
2. Bar is a unit of
(a) pressure (b) force
(c) energy (d) frequency
3. Oxygen and ozone are –
(a) allotropes (b) isomers
(c) isotopes (d) isobars
4. Who among the following proposed
that atom is indivisible?
(a) Dalton (b) Berzelius
(c) Rutherford (d) Avogadro
5. Neutron was discovered by
(a) J. J. Thomson (b) Chadwick
(c) Rutherford (d) Priestley
6. The word ‘insolation’ means
(a) Matters which insulates
(b) Incoming solar radiation
(c) Insoluble matters
(d) None of the above
7. Neutrino has-
(a) charge + 1, mass 1
(b) charge 0, mass 0
(c) charge – 1, mass 1
(d) charge 0, mass 1
8. Indicate the correct arrangement for
electromagnetic radiation in order of
their increasing wavelength-
(a) Visible, infrared, microwave, Xrays
(b) X – rays, infrared, visible,
microwave
(c) Microwave, infrared, visible, X
– rays
(d) X- rays, visible, infrared,
microwave
9. The photoelectric effect is described
as the ejection of electrons from the
surface of metal when-
(a) it is used
(b) it is placed in strong electrick
field
(c) electrons of suitable velocity
impinge on it
(d) Light of suitable wavelength
falls on it
10. Which electro magnetic radiation is
emitted by radioactive substance-
(a) –rays
(b) Radio waves
(c) Micro waves
(d) x – ray
11. Species containing same number of
electrons are called:
(a) Isotopes (b) Isobars
(c) Isoelectronic (d) Isotones
12. Isobars are lines displaying areas of
equal-
(a) Humidity
(b) Temperature
(c) Rainfall
(d) Atmospheric pressure
13. The phenomenon of radioactivity
was discovered in 1898 A. D. by-
(a) Henri Becquerel
(b) J.J Thomson
(c)`Marie Curie
(d) Pierre Curie
14. The α – particles are-
(a) High energy electrons
(b) Positively charged hydrogen ions
(c) High energy x –ray radiations
(d) double positively charged helium
nuclei
15. Heavy water is used as a coolant in
nuclear reactors Heavy water is
(a) Water rich in minerals
(b) Ozonized water
(c) Water containing minerals of
heavy metal
(d) Water containg heavy isotope of
hydrogen
16. Gamam rays are-
(a) high energy electrons
(b) low energy electrons
(c) high energy electromagnetic
(d) high energy positions waves
17. Neclear fission is caused by the
impact of –
(a) Neutrons (b) Protons
(c) Deuteron (d) Electron
18. Hydrogen bomb is based on the
principle of –
(a) nuclear fission
(b) nuclear fusion
(c) natural radioactivity
(d) artificial radioactivity
19. In nuclear raeactors the speed of
neutrons is slowed down by –
(a) heavy water
(b) ordinary water
(c) zinc rods
(d) moten caustic soda
20. In treatement of cancer, which of the
following is used-
(a) I5 (b) �5
(c) 6CO7 (d) �
21. What was the fissionable material
used in the bombs dropped at
Nagasaki (Japan) in the years 1945?
(a) Sodium (c) Potassium
(c) Plutonium (d) Uranium
22. ‘Yellow cake’ an item of smuggling
across broder is-
(a) a crude form of heroin
(b) a crude form of cocaine
(c) uranium oxide
(d) unrefined gold
23. Cobalt – 60 is commonly used in
radiation therapy because it emits-
(a) α – rays (b) beta rays
(c) Gamma ray (d) X – rays
24. H2O is liquid and H2S is a gas
because-
(a) Oxygen forms stronger hydrogen
bond than sulphur
(b) Oxygen is less electronegative
than sulphur
(c) Atomic radius of oxygen is less
than that of sulphur
(d) Atomic radius of oxygen is
greater than that of sulphur
25. The acid used in eye wash is
(a) Oxalic acid (b) nitric acid
(c) Boric acid (d) None
26. Source of vitamin C is
(a) Nitric acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Oxalic acid
(d) Maleic acid
27. Hydrochloric acid is also known as
(a) Garlic acid
(b) Picric acid
(c) Muriatic acid
(d) Chloric acid
28. Aqua Regia contains
(a) 3 parts of conc. HCI + 1 part of
con. HNO3
(b) 3 parts of conc. HCI + 1 part of
con. H2SO4
(c) 3 parts of conc. H2SO4 + 1 part
of con. HNO3
(d) None of these
29. Rate of diffusion of a gas is –
(a) Directly proportional to its
density
(b) Directly proportional to its
molecular mass1. The most abundant elements is:
(a) Silicon (b) Calcium
(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen
2. Bar is a unit of
(a) pressure (b) force
(c) energy (d) frequency
3. Oxygen and ozone are –
(a) allotropes (b) isomers
(c) isotopes (d) isobars
4. Who among the following proposed
that atom is indivisible?
(a) Dalton (b) Berzelius
(c) Rutherford (d) Avogadro
5. Neutron was discovered by
(a) J. J. Thomson (b) Chadwick
(c) Rutherford (d) Priestley
6. The word ‘insolation’ means
(a) Matters which insulates
(b) Incoming solar radiation
(c) Insoluble matters
(d) None of the above
7. Neutrino has-
(a) charge + 1, mass 1
(b) charge 0, mass 0
(c) charge – 1, mass 1
(d) charge 0, mass 1
8. Indicate the correct arrangement for
electromagnetic radiation in order of
their increasing wavelength-
(a) Visible, infrared, microwave, Xrays
(b) X – rays, infrared, visible,
microwave
(c) Microwave, infrared, visible, X
– rays
(d) X- rays, visible, infrared,
microwave
9. The photoelectric effect is described
as the ejection of electrons from the
surface of metal when-
(a) it is used
(b) it is placed in strong electrick
field
(c) electrons of suitable velocity
impinge on it
(d) Light of suitable wavelength
falls on it
10. Which electro magnetic radiation is
emitted by radioactive substance-
(a) –rays
(b) Radio waves
(c) Micro waves
(d) x – ray
11. Species containing same number of
electrons are called:
(a) Isotopes (b) Isobars
(c) Isoelectronic (d) Isotones
12. Isobars are lines displaying areas of
equal-
(a) Humidity
(b) Temperature
(c) Rainfall
(d) Atmospheric pressure
13. The phenomenon of radioactivity
was discovered in 1898 A. D. by-
(a) Henri Becquerel
(b) J.J Thomson
(c)`Marie Curie
(d) Pierre Curie
14. The α – particles are-
(a) High energy electrons
(b) Positively charged hydrogen ions
(c) High energy x –ray radiations
(d) double positively charged helium
nuclei
15. Heavy water is used as a coolant in
nuclear reactors Heavy water is
(a) Water rich in minerals
(b) Ozonized water
(c) Water containing minerals of
heavy metal
(d) Water containg heavy isotope of
hydrogen
16. Gamam rays are-
(a) high energy electrons
(b) low energy electrons
(c) high energy electromagnetic
(d) high energy positions waves
17. Neclear fission is caused by the
impact of –
(a) Neutrons (b) Protons
(c) Deuteron (d) Electron
18. Hydrogen bomb is based on the
principle of –
(a) nuclear fission
(b) nuclear fusion
(c) natural radioactivity
(d) artificial radioactivity
19. In nuclear raeactors the speed of
neutrons is slowed down by –
(a) heavy water
(b) ordinary water
(c) zinc rods
(d) moten caustic soda
20. In treatement of cancer, which of the
following is used-
(a) I5 (b) �5
(c) 6CO7 (d) �
21. What was the fissionable material
used in the bombs dropped at
Nagasaki (Japan) in the years 1945?
(a) Sodium (c) Potassium
(c) Plutonium (d) Uranium
22. ‘Yellow cake’ an item of smuggling
across broder is-
(a) a crude form of heroin
(b) a crude form of cocaine
(c) uranium oxide
(d) unrefined gold
23. Cobalt – 60 is commonly used in
radiation therapy because it emits-
(a) α – rays (b) beta rays
(c) Gamma ray (d) X – rays
24. H2O is liquid and H2S is a gas
because-
(a) Oxygen forms stronger hydrogen
bond than sulphur
(b) Oxygen is less electronegative
than sulphur
(c) Atomic radius of oxygen is less
than that of sulphur
(d) Atomic radius of oxygen is
greater than that of sulphur
25. The acid used in eye wash is
(a) Oxalic acid (b) nitric acid
(c) Boric acid (d) None
26. Source of vitamin C is
(a) Nitric acid
(b) Ascorbic acid
(c) Oxalic acid
(d) Maleic acid
27. Hydrochloric acid is also known as
(a) Garlic acid
(b) Picric acid
(c) Muriatic acid
(d) Chloric acid
28. Aqua Regia contains
(a) 3 parts of conc. HCI + 1 part of
con. HNO3
(b) 3 parts of conc. HCI + 1 part of
con. H2SO4
(c) 3 parts of conc. H2SO4 + 1 part
of con. HNO3
(d) None of these
29. Rate of diffusion of a gas is –
(a) Directly proportional to its
density
(b) Directly proportional to its
molecular mass
(c) Directly proportional to the
square of its molecular mass
(d) Inversely propostional to the
square root of its molecular mass
30. Deviations from ideal behavior will
be more of the gas issubjected to-
(a) Low temperature and high
pressure
(b) High temperature and low
pressure
(c) Low temperature
(d) High temperature
31. An ideal gas is one which obeys-
(a) Gas laws
(b) Boyle’s laws
(c) Charle’s law
(d) Avogadro’s law
32. Alcoholic fermentation is brought
about the action of –
(a) yeast (b) CO2
(c) O2 (d) CO
33. The enzymes are killed-
(a) At a very high temperature
(b) During chemical reaction
(c) At low temperature
(d) Under atmospheric pressure
34. If a refrigerator’s door is kept open,
then-
(a) Room will be cooled
(b) Room will be heated
(c) May get cooled or heated
depending upon the weather
(d) No effect on room
35. When a gas is subjected to adiabatic
expansion, it gets cooled due to-
(a) No chage in tntropy
(b) Loss in kinetic energy
(c) Decreases in velocity
(d) Energy spent in doing work-
36. Coal gas is a mixure of-
(a) H2, CH4, CO
(b) H2, N2, CO
(c) H2, N2, O2
(d) H2, O2, CO2
37. The gas supplied in cylinders for
cooking is-
(a) marsh gas
(b) LPG
(c) Mixture of CH4 and C2H6
(d) Mixture of ethane and propane
38. The most electronegative element
among the following is-
(a) Chlorine
(b) Oxygen
(c) Fluorine
(d) Sodium
39. When a gas is turned into a liquid,
the process is called-
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Deposition
(d) Sublimation
40. The boiling point of water decreases
at higher altitudes is due to
(a) Low temperature
(b) Low atmospheric pressure
(c) High temperature
(d) High atmospheric pressure
41. At high altitudes the boiling point of
water lowers because-
(a) Atmoshperic pressure is low
(b) Atmospheric pressure is high
(c) Temperature is low
(d) None of these
42. In electro – refining, the pure metal
is deposited on-
(a) Cathode (b) Anode
(c) Vessel (d) Electrolyte
43. In galvanization, iron is coated with
(a) Copper (b) Zinc
(c) Tin (d) Nickel
44. Smoke is a colloidal dispersion of a
–
(a) Solid in a gas
(b) Liquid in a gas
(c) Gas in a solid
(d) Gas in a gas
45. When a few typical solutes are
separted by aparticular selective
membrane, such as protein particles
from blood corpuscles, the process
is called-
(a) Exosmosis
(b) Dialysis
(c) Transpiration
(d) Endosmosis
46. The bleeding of a wound is stopped
by the application of ferric chloride
because-
(a) Blood starts flowing in the
opposite direction
(b) Ferric chloride seals the blood
vessels
(c) Blood reacts and a solid is
formed which seals the blood
vessels
(d) Blood is coagulated and the
blood vessels are sealed
47. Cod liver is an example of –
(a) Oil emulsion
(b) Oil in water emulsion
(c) Water in oil emulsion
(d) Water in water emulsion
48. Milk is an example of –
(a) oil in water emulsion
(b) Water in oil emulsion
(c) Fat in oil emulsion
(d) Fat in water emulsion
49. The blue colour of water in the sea
is due to-
(a) Refraction of the blue light by
the impurities in sea water
(b) Scattering of blue light by water
molecules
(c) Refraction of blue sky by sea
water
(d) Absorption of other colours
except the blue colour by water
molecules
50. Which one is an example of
Miscelles System here-
(a) Soap – Water
(b) Protein + Water
(c) Rubber – Benzene
(d) All of these
51. The detergent action of soap is due
to its-
(a) Emulsifying property
(b) Alkalinity
(c) Solubility in water
(d) Preciptating power
52. Muddy water is treated with alum in
purification process, it is termed as.
(a) adsorption
(b) emulsification
(c) absorption
(d) coagulation
53. The use of heat treatment of ore that
includes smelting and roasting is
termed:
(a) electrometallurgy
(b) Cryometallurgy
(c) Hydrometallurgy
(d) Pyrometallurgy
54. Plaster of Paris is made from –
(a) Marble (b) Bauxite
(c) Limestone (d) Gypsum
55. When or is heated generally in
absence of air then process is called-
(a) smelting (b) roasting
(c) calcinations (d) none
56. Match List – I with List – II and
select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists-
List - I List – II
A. Blue 1. Sodium bicarbonate
vitriol
B. Epson 2. Sodium hydroxide
salt
C. Baking 3. Magnesium sulphate
Soda
D. Caustic 4. Copper sulphate
Soda
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 2 1
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 4 3 1 2
57. Barium in a suitable form is
administered to patients before an X
–ray examination of the stomach,
because-
(a) barium allows X – rays to pass
through the stomach on account its
transparency to X –rays
(b) barium is a good absorber of –
rays and this helps the stomach to
appear clerly in contrast with the
other regions in the picture
(c) barium is a good absosrber of X
– rays and this helps the stomach to
appear clerly in contrast with the
other regions in the picture
(d) barium slats are white in colour
and this help the stomach to appear
clearly in contrast with other region
in the pictures
58. The chemical name of bakin soda
is
(a) Sodium carbonate
(b) Sodium bicarbonate
(c) Sodium Chloride
(d) Sodium nitrate
59. Chemical formula of washing soda
is
(a) Na2 SO4 10 H2 O
(b) NaHCO3
(c) Na2 CO3 10H2O
(d) Ca (OH)2
60. Which of the following is
responsible for permanent
hardness of water?
(a) Magnesium bicarbonate
(b) Sodium chloride
(c) Calcium sulphate
(d) Calcium bicarbonate
61. Soda ash is the name for:
(a) Sodium hydroxide
(b) Anhydrous sodium carbonate
(c) Sodium bicarbonate
(d) Hydrated sodium carbonate
62. There are only two metals that are
non-silver in color, they are
(a) Sodium & Magnesium
(b) Copper & Gold
(c) Palladium & Platinum
(d) Nickel & Zinc
63. The process of sudden cooling is
known as –
(a) annealing
(b) diffusion
(c) quenching
(d) sedimentation
64. The soft silvery metallic element
which ionizes easily when heated
or exposed to light and is present
in atomicclocks is.
(a) Califonrium (b) Calcium
(c) Cerium (d) Cesium
65. Heavy metal got their name
because compared to other atoms
they have
(a) Higher atomic number
(b) Higher atomic radii
(c) Higher atomic masses
(d) Higher densities
66. The ore of Aluminium is
(a) Chalco pyrites
(b) Hematite
(c) Fluorspar
(d) Bauxite
67. Chemically vermillion is
(a) Calcium Carbonate
(b) Potassium Nitrate
(c) Potassium Sulphide
(d) Merucry (II) Sulphide
(e) None of the above
68. Annealing process is –
(a) heating the steel bright red and
then cooling slowly
(b) heating the steel to a
temperature much below redness
and cooling it slowly
(c) beating rods of iron embedded
in charcoal powder
(d) heating steel to bright red and
cooling suddenly
69. Sodium metal should be stored in
(a) Alcohol
(b) Kerosene oil
(c) Water
(d) Hydrochloric acid
70. Which of the most reactive metal?
(a) Sodium (b) Calcium
(c) Iron (d) Potassium
71. Which one among the following is
used in making gunpowder?
(a) Magnesium sulphate
(b) Potassium nitrate
(c) Sodium stearate
(d) Calcium sulphate
72. In the ordinary fire extinguisher,
carbon dioxide is generated by the
reaction of
(a) Sodium carbonate and dilute
HCI
(b) Sodium bicarbonate and dilute
H2SO4
(c) Limestone and dilute H2SO4
(d) Marble powder and dilute HCI
73. The chemical name of plaster of
paris is-
(a) Calcium Chloride
(b) Calcium Nitrate
(c) Calcium Sulphate Hydrate
(d) None of these
74. Water attains maximum density at-
(a) 0° C (b) 4° F
(c) 4 k (d) 4° C
75. Which of the following could act
as properllant for rockets-
(a) Liquid hydrogen + Liquid
nitrogen
(b) Liquid nitrogern – Liquid
oxygen
(c) Liquid hydrogen - Liquid
oxygen
(d) Liquid oxygen – Liquid argon
76. The velocity of neutrons in nuclear
reactor is slowed down by-
(a) Heavy water (D2O)
(b) Zinc rod
(c) Fused caustic soda
(d) Ordinary water (H2O)
77. Which of the following gases is
used in cigarette lighters?
(a) Butane (b) Methane
(c) Propane (d) Radon
78. The chemical used as a fixer
/developer in photography
(a) Sodium sulphate
(b) Sodium sulphide
(c) Sodium thiosulphate
(d) Sodium sulphite
79. Marsh gas contains-
(a) CO2 (b) CH4
(c) N2 (d) C2H6
80. The ultraviolet rays can be
checked by –
(a) Flint glass
(b) Crooke’s glass
(c) Soda glass (d) Pyrex glass
81. Permanent hardness of water is
due to the presence of
(a) Sulphates of sodium and
potassium
(b) Sulphates of magnesium and
calcium
(c) Carbonates of sodium and
magnesium
(d) Bicarbonates of magnesium
and calcium
82. Red phosphorus is less reactive
than yellow phosphorus because-
(a) It is red in colour
(b) it is highly polymerized
(c) It is insoluble in C2H5OH
(d) it is hard
83. In the manufacture of safety
matches, we use-
(a) White phosphorus
(b) Black phosphoorus
(c) Violet phosphorus
(d) Red phosphorus
84. Photographic plates are coated
with a film of-
(a) AgCI (b) AgBr
(c) AgI (d) AgNO3
85. Cid rain is due to
(a) Sulphur dioxide pollution
(b) Carbon monoxide pollution
(c) Pesticide pollution
(d) Dust particules in the
atmosphere
86. The gas used to extinguish fire is �
(a) Neon (b) Nitrogen
(c) Carbon dioxide
(d) Carbon monoxide
87. Which of the following is
responsible for blue baby
syndrome-
(a) Fluoride (b) Nitrate
(c) Arsenic (d) Lead
88. The pollutan responsible for ozone
holes is ����
(a) CO2 (b) SO2
(c) CO (d) CFC
89. Nitrogen in water is commonly
found in the form of :
(a) Nitric oxide
(b) Nitrous oxide
(c) Nitrate (d) Nitrite
90. In the study of pollution, SPM
refers to
(a) Sulphur Phosphorus Matter
(b) Sulphur Particlulate Matter
(c) Solid Particulate Matter
(d) Suspended Particulate Matter
91. The first organic compound
synthesized in the laboratory was
(a) Urea (b) Uric acid
(c) Lactic acid (d) Glucose
92. Gas used for artificial ripening of
fruits is:
(a) Ethane (b) Acetylene
(c) Propane (d) Methane
93. Chromatography technique is used
for the separation of
(a) Small sample of mixture
(b) Plant pigments
(c) Dye stuff
(d) All
94. The gas produced in marshy places
due to decomposition of vegetation
is
(a) Carbon monoxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Sulphur dioxide
(d) Methane
95. Ethanol containing 5% water is
known as-
(a) Absolute alcohol
(b) Dilute alcohol
(c) Power alcohol
(d) Rectified spirit
96. Chemical name of Gammaxane is:
(a) Aniline
(b) Toulene
(c) Benzene hexachloride
(c) Chloro benzene
97. Power alcohol is �
(a) Absolute alcohol + Methyle
alcohol
(b) Absoluted alcohol + Petrol
(c) Rectified alcohol + Petrol
(d) Denatured alcohol + Petrol
98. What happens when a drop of
glycerol is added to crush KMnO4
sprcad on a paper?
(a) There is a crackling sound
(b) There is no reaction
(c) The paper ignites
(d) There is a violent explosion
99. Which of the following is used as
raw material for the manufacture
of rayon?
(a) Coal (b) Petroleum
(c) Cellulose (d) Plastic
100. Lemon is sour due to-
(a) Citric acid
(b) Tartaric acid
(c) Oxalic acid
(d) Acetic acid
101. Which one omong the following
fules is used in gas welding?
(a) LPG (b) Ethylene
(c) Methane (d) Acetylene
102. Fementation of ethyl alcohol into
acetic acid is done by-
(a) Zymase (b) Diastase
(c) Maltase
(d) Bacterium mycoderma aceti
103. The process by which vegetable
ghee is manufactured is known as-
(a) Saponification
(b) Hydrogenation
(c) Esterification
(d) Dydrolysis
104. The sweetest of all sugars-
(a) Glucose only
(b) glucose and galactose
(c) glucose and fructose
(d) glucose and lactose
105. Enzymses are �
(a) carbohydrates (b) lipids
(c) proteins
(d) None of these
106. One of the best solutions to get rid
of non � biodegradable wastes is
(a) Recycling (b) Dumping
(c) Burying (d) Burning
107. Vitamin C is �
(a) ascorbic acid
(b) nicotinic acid
(c) citric acid
(d) tartaric acid
108. Chemical name of vitamin A is �
(a) Thiamine
(b) axerophthol (acid)
(c) Ascorbic acid
(d) nicotinamide
109. Which one of the following
contains cobalt?
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Haemoglobin
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin B12
110. Vitamin B1 is known as-
(a) pyridoxine
(b) thiamine
(c) tocopheral
(d) riboflavin
111. Enzymes-
(a) accelerate bio-chemical
reactions
(b) consist of amino acids
(c) have optimum activity at body
temperature
(d) have all these properties
112. Which is fight and flight organ?
(a) Adrenal (b) Thyroid
(c) Pituitary (d) Kidney
113. Match the following
I. II.
A.Ascorbic 1.Photosynthetic
acid pigment
B. Chlorophyll 2. Quencher
C. Carotenoid 3. Enzyme
D. Superoxide 4. Vitamin-
C dismutase
114. Vitamin B12 contains-
(a) Co (b) O2
(c) CO2 (d) Cl2
115. Deficiency of which one of the
following cause xerophthalmia-
(a) Vitamin B3
(b) Vitamin B12
(c) Vitamin A (d) Vitamin C
116. Deficiency of which one of the
following cause knock knee, bow
legs and pigeon chest in children
(a) Vitamin A (b) Vitamin B2
(c) Vitamin D (d) Vitamin E
117. The term �Carbon foot print�
means
(a) A region which is rich in coal
mines
(b) The amount of reduction in the
emission of CO2 by a country
(c) The use of Carbon in
manufacturing industries
(d) The amount of greenhouse
gases produced by our day-to-day
activities
118. Ozone depletion in the
stratosphere is mainly caused by-
(a) SO2 (b) NO2
(c) NO
(d) Chlorofluorocarbons
119. Global warming may result in-
(a) Flood (b) cyclone
(c) Decrease in forest productivity
(d) all of the above
120. TAj Mahal is said to be suffering
from �Marble Cancer�. What is
Marble Cancer?
(a) Smokes filling the Taj Mahal
from adjoining industries
(b) Large no. of funges is Taj
Mahal marbles.
(c) Acidic rain which corrodes
marble
(c) Yellowing of marble on a/c.. of
soot particles
121. The substrate of Photorespiration
is.
(a) Fuctose
(b) Pyruvic acid
(c) Glycolate
(d) Glucose
122. It is reported that there is an
ongoing decrease in the pH value
of ocean water because of global
warming. It happens due to:
(a) larger uptake of CO2 be ocean
water
(b) lesser uptake of CO2 by ocean
water
(c) larger uptake of atmospheric
nitrogen by ocean water
(d) lesser uptake of atmospheric
nitrogen by ocean water.
123. Acid rain is caused by the
pollution of environment by-
(a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
(b) carbon monoxide and carbon
dioxide
(c) ozone and carbon dioxide
(d) Nitrous oxide and sulphur
dioxide
124. Which one among the following
substances is NOT a �green house�
gas?
(a) Water vapour
(b) Chlorofluorocarbon
(c) Methane
(d) Nitrogen
125. Main pollutan present in
automobile exhaust is-
(a) CO
(b) CO2
(c) NO
(d) hydrocarbons
126. The increasing amount of carbon
dioxide in the air is slowly raising
the temperature of atmosphere,
because it absobs-
(a) The water vapours of the air
and retains its heat
(b) The ultraviolet part of the solar
radiation
(c) All the solar radiations
(d) The infrared part of the solar
radiation
127. The gas which is present in both
the natural gas and the bio- gas is-
(a) Methane (b) Butane
(c) Hydrogen
(d) Carbon Monoxide
Answers
1 c 31 a 61 d 91 a 121 d
2 a 32 a 62 b 92 b 122 a
3 a 33 a 63 c 93 d 123 d
4 a 34 b 64 d 94 d 124 d
5 b 35 d 65 c 95 d 125 a
6 b 36 a 66 d 96 c 126 d
7 b 37 b 67 d 97 b 127 b
8 d 38 c 68 a 98 c
9 d 39 a 69 b 99 c
10 a 40 b 70 d 100 a
11 c 41 a 71 b 101 b
12 d 42 a 72 b 102 d
13 a 43 c 73 c 103 b
14 d 44 a 74 d 104 d
15 d 45 b 75 c 105 c
16 c 46 d 76 a 106 a
17 b 47 c 77 a 107 a
18 b 48 a 78 c 108 b
19 a 49 b 79 b 109 d
20 c 50 a 80 b 110 b
21 c 51 a 81 b 111 d
22 c 52 d 82 b 112 b
23 c 53 d 83 d 113 a
24 a 54 d 84 b 114 a
25 c 55 b 85 a 115 c
26 b 56 d 86 c 116 c
27 c 57 c 87 b 117 d
28 a 58 b 88 d 118 d
29 d 59 c 89 * 119 d
30 a 60 c 90 d 120 c